This is a direct consequence of (2) or (3).
Let \mathfrak {A} be the set of all proper ideals of R. This set is ordered by inclusion and is non-empty, since (0) \in \mathfrak {A} is a proper ideal. Let A be a totally ordered subset of \mathfrak A. Then \bigcup _{I \in A} I is in fact an ideal. Since 1 \notin I for all I \in A, the union does not contain 1 and thus is proper. Hence \bigcup _{I \in A} I is in \mathfrak {A} and is an upper bound for the set A. Thus by Zorn's lemma \mathfrak {A} has a maximal element, which is the sought-after maximal ideal.
Since R is nonzero, it contains a maximal ideal which is a prime ideal. Thus the set \mathfrak {A} of all prime ideals of R is nonempty. \mathfrak {A} is ordered by reverse-inclusion. Let A be a totally ordered subset of \mathfrak {A}. It's pretty clear that J = \bigcap _{I \in A} I is in fact an ideal. Not so clear, however, is that it is prime. Let xy \in J. Then xy \in I for all I \in A. Now let B = \{ I \in A | y \in I\} . Let K = \bigcap _{I \in B} I. Since A is totally ordered, either K = J (and we're done, since then y \in J) or K \supset J and for all I \in A such that I is properly contained in K, we have y \notin I. But that means that for all those I, x \in I, since they are prime. Hence x \in J. In either case, J is prime as desired. Hence by Zorn's lemma we get a maximal element which in this case is a minimal prime ideal.
This is the same exact argument as (3) except you only consider prime ideals contained in \mathfrak {p} and containing I.
(T) is the smallest ideal containing T. Hence if T \subset I, some ideal, then (T) \subset I as well. Hence if I \in V(T), then I \in V((T)) as well. The other inclusion is obvious.
Since I \subset \sqrt{I}, V(\sqrt{I}) \subset V(I). Now let \mathfrak {p} \in V(I). Let x \in \sqrt{I}. Then x^ n \in I for some n. Hence x^ n \in \mathfrak {p}. But since \mathfrak {p} is prime, a boring induction argument gets you that x \in \mathfrak {p}. Hence \sqrt{I} \subset \mathfrak {p} and \mathfrak {p} \in V(\sqrt{I}).
Let f \in R \setminus \sqrt{I}. Then f^ n \notin I for all n. Hence S = \{ 1, f, f^2, \ldots \} is a multiplicative subset, not containing 0. Take a prime ideal \bar{\mathfrak {p}} \subset S^{-1}R containing S^{-1}I. Then the pull-back \mathfrak {p} in R of \bar{\mathfrak {p}} is a prime ideal containing I that does not intersect S. This shows that \bigcap _{I \subset \mathfrak p} \mathfrak p \subset \sqrt{I}. Now if a \in \sqrt{I}, then a^ n \in I for some n. Hence if I \subset \mathfrak {p}, then a^ n \in \mathfrak {p}. But since \mathfrak {p} is prime, we have a \in \mathfrak {p}. Thus the equality is shown.
I is not the unit ideal if and only if I is contained in some maximal ideal (to see this, apply (2) to the ring R/I) which is therefore prime.
If \mathfrak {p} \in V(I) \cup V(J), then I \subset \mathfrak {p} or J \subset \mathfrak {p} which means that I \cap J \subset \mathfrak {p}. Now if I \cap J \subset \mathfrak {p}, then IJ \subset \mathfrak {p} and hence either I of J is in \mathfrak {p}, since \mathfrak {p} is prime.
\mathfrak {p} \in \bigcap _{a \in A} V(I_ a) \Leftrightarrow I_ a \subset \mathfrak {p}, \forall a \in A \Leftrightarrow \mathfrak {p} \in V(\bigcup _{a\in A} I_ a)
If \mathfrak {p} is a prime ideal and f \in R, then either f \in \mathfrak {p} or f \notin \mathfrak {p} (strictly) which is what the disjoint union says.
If a \in R is nilpotent, then a^ n = 0 for some n. Hence a^ n \in \mathfrak {p} for any prime ideal. Thus a \in \mathfrak {p} as can be shown by induction and D(a) = \emptyset . Now, as shown in (7), if a \in R is not nilpotent, then there is a prime ideal that does not contain it.
f \in \mathfrak {p} \Leftrightarrow uf \in \mathfrak {p}, since u is invertible.
If \mathfrak {p} \notin V(I), then \exists f \in I \setminus \mathfrak {p}. Then f \notin \mathfrak {p} so \mathfrak {p} \in D(f). Also if \mathfrak {q} \in D(f), then f \notin \mathfrak {q} and thus I is not contained in \mathfrak {q}. Thus D(f) \cap V(I) = \emptyset .
If fg \in \mathfrak {p}, then f \in \mathfrak {p} or g \in \mathfrak {p}. Hence if f \notin \mathfrak {p} and g \notin \mathfrak {p}, then fg \notin \mathfrak {p}. Since \mathfrak {p} is an ideal, if fg \notin \mathfrak {p}, then f \notin \mathfrak {p} and g \notin \mathfrak {p}.
\mathfrak {p} \in \bigcup _{i \in I} D(f_ i) \Leftrightarrow \exists i \in I, f_ i \notin \mathfrak {p} \Leftrightarrow \mathfrak {p} \in \mathop{\mathrm{Spec}}(R) \setminus V(\{ f_ i\} _{i \in I})
If D(f) = \mathop{\mathrm{Spec}}(R), then V(f) = \emptyset and hence fR = R, so f is a unit.
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