The Stacks project

Lemma 10.50.17. Let $A$ be a valuation ring. Ideals in $A$ correspond $1 - 1$ with ideals of $\Gamma $. This bijection is inclusion preserving, and maps prime ideals to prime ideals.

Proof. Omitted. $\square$


Comments (3)

Comment #8760 by Zhenhua Wu on

the zero prime ideal of doesn't correspond to any ideal of because by the definition here we don't allow zero ideal in , unless you allow to be an ideal of .

Comment #8874 by Zhenhua Wu on

Sorry for the last comment. Actually from the definition of ideals of we can see that and can all be ideals. They correspond to and respectively. But is not a prime ideal, so we shouldn't allow to be a prime ideal of .

There are also:

  • 4 comment(s) on Section 10.50: Valuation rings

Post a comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked.

In your comment you can use Markdown and LaTeX style mathematics (enclose it like $\pi$). A preview option is available if you wish to see how it works out (just click on the eye in the toolbar).

Unfortunately JavaScript is disabled in your browser, so the comment preview function will not work.

All contributions are licensed under the GNU Free Documentation License.




In order to prevent bots from posting comments, we would like you to prove that you are human. You can do this by filling in the name of the current tag in the following input field. As a reminder, this is tag 00IH. Beware of the difference between the letter 'O' and the digit '0'.