Lemma 29.53.12. Let $f : Y \to X$ be an integral morphism. Then the normalization of $X$ in $Y$ is equal to $Y$.

Proof. By Lemma 29.44.7 this is a special case of Lemma 29.53.11. $\square$

Comment #1336 by Joseph Gunther on

Minor typo: integral closure should be normalization?

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