111.29 Infinitely many primes
A section with a collection of strange questions on rings where infinitely many primes are not invertible.
Exercise 111.29.1. Give an example of a finite type {\mathbf Z}-algebra R with the following two properties:
There is no ring map R \to {\mathbf Q}.
For every prime p there exists a maximal ideal {\mathfrak m} \subset R such that R/{\mathfrak m} \cong {\mathbf F}_ p.
Exercise 111.29.2. For f \in {\mathbf Z}[x, u] we define f_ p(x) = f(x, x^ p) \bmod p \in {\mathbf F}_ p[x]. Give an example of an f \in {\mathbf Z}[x, u] such that the following two properties hold:
There exist infinitely many p such that f_ p does not have a zero in {\mathbf F}_ p.
For all p >> 0 the polynomial f_ p either has a linear or a quadratic factor.
Exercise 111.29.3. For f \in {\mathbf Z}[x, y, u, v] we define f_ p(x, y) = f(x, y, x^ p, y^ p) \bmod p \in {\mathbf F}_ p[x, y]. Give an “interesting” example of an f such that f_ p is reducible for all p >> 0. For example, f = xv-yu with f_ p = xy^ p-x^ py = xy(x^{p-1}-y^{p-1}) is “uninteresting”; any f depending only on x, u is “uninteresting”, etc.
Exercise 111.29.5. Let h, A, B, A_ p, B_ p be as in the remark. For f \in {\mathbf Z}[x, u] we define f_ p(x) = f(x, x^ p) \bmod p \in {\mathbf F}_ p[x]. For g \in {\mathbf Z}[y, v] we define g_ p(y) = g(y, y^ p) \bmod p \in {\mathbf F}_ p[y].
Give an example of a h and g such that there does not exist a f with the property
f_ p = Norm_{B_ p/A_ p}(g_ p).
Show that for any choice of h and g as above there exists a nonzero f such that for all p we have
Norm_{B_ p/A_ p}(g_ p)\quad \text{divides}\quad f_ p .
If you want you can restrict to the case h = y^ n, even with n = 2, but it is true in general.
Discuss the relevance of this to Exercises 6 and 7 of the previous set.
Exercise 111.29.6. Unsolved problems. They may be really hard or they may be easy. I don't know.
Is there any f \in {\mathbf Z}[x, u] such that f_ p is irreducible for an infinite number of p? (Hint: Yes, this happens for f(x, u) = u - x - 1 and also for f(x, u) = u^2 - x^2 + 1.)
Let f \in {\mathbf Z}[x, u] nonzero, and suppose \deg _ x(f_ p) = dp + d' for all large p. (In other words \deg _ u(f) = d and the coefficient c of u^ d in f has \deg _ x(c) = d'.) Suppose we can write d = d_1 + d_2 and d' = d'_1 + d'_2 with d_1, d_2 > 0 and d'_1, d'_2 \geq 0 such that for all sufficiently large p there exists a factorization
with \deg _ x(f_{1, p}) = d_1p + d'_1. Is it true that f comes about via a norm construction as in Exercise 4? (More precisely, are there a h and g such that Norm_{B_ p/A_ p}(g_ p) divides f_ p for all p >> 0.)
Analogous question to the one in (b) but now with f \in {\mathbf Z}[x_1, x_2, u_1, u_2] irreducible and just assuming that f_ p(x_1, x_2) = f(x_1, x_2, x_1^ p, x_2^ p) \bmod p factors for all p >> 0.
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