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The Stacks project

Lemma 10.108.2. Let R be a ring. Let I \subset R be an ideal. The following are equivalent:

  1. I is pure,

  2. for every ideal J \subset R we have J \cap I = IJ,

  3. for every finitely generated ideal J \subset R we have J \cap I = JI,

  4. for every x \in R we have (x) \cap I = xI,

  5. for every x \in I we have x = yx for some y \in I,

  6. for every x_1, \ldots , x_ n \in I there exists a y \in I such that x_ i = yx_ i for all i = 1, \ldots , n,

  7. for every prime \mathfrak p of R we have IR_{\mathfrak p} = 0 or IR_{\mathfrak p} = R_{\mathfrak p},

  8. \text{Supp}(I) = \mathop{\mathrm{Spec}}(R) \setminus V(I),

  9. I is the kernel of the map R \to (1 + I)^{-1}R,

  10. R/I \cong S^{-1}R as R-algebras for some multiplicative subset S of R, and

  11. R/I \cong (1 + I)^{-1}R as R-algebras.

Proof. For any ideal J of R we have the short exact sequence 0 \to J \to R \to R/J \to 0. Tensoring with R/I we get an exact sequence J \otimes _ R R/I \to R/I \to R/I + J \to 0 and J \otimes _ R R/I = J/JI. Thus the equivalence of (1), (2), and (3) follows from Lemma 10.39.5. Moreover, these imply (4).

The implication (4) \Rightarrow (5) is trivial. Assume (5) and let x_1, \ldots , x_ n \in I. Choose y_ i \in I such that x_ i = y_ ix_ i. Let y \in I be the element such that 1 - y = \prod _{i = 1, \ldots , n} (1 - y_ i). Then x_ i = yx_ i for all i = 1, \ldots , n. Hence (6) holds, and it follows that (5) \Leftrightarrow (6).

Assume (5). Let x \in I. Then x = yx for some y \in I. Hence x(1 - y) = 0, which shows that x maps to zero in (1 + I)^{-1}R. Of course the kernel of the map R \to (1 + I)^{-1}R is always contained in I. Hence we see that (5) implies (9). Assume (9). Then for any x \in I we see that x(1 - y) = 0 for some y \in I. In other words, x = yx. We conclude that (5) is equivalent to (9).

Assume (5). Let \mathfrak p be a prime of R. If \mathfrak p \not\in V(I), then IR_{\mathfrak p} = R_{\mathfrak p}. If \mathfrak p \in V(I), in other words, if I \subset \mathfrak p, then x \in I implies x(1 - y) = 0 for some y \in I, implies x maps to zero in R_{\mathfrak p}, i.e., IR_{\mathfrak p} = 0. Thus we see that (7) holds.

Assume (7). Then (R/I)_{\mathfrak p} is either 0 or R_{\mathfrak p} for any prime \mathfrak p of R. Hence by Lemma 10.39.18 we see that (1) holds. At this point we see that all of (1) – (7) and (9) are equivalent.

As IR_{\mathfrak p} = I_{\mathfrak p} we see that (7) implies (8). Finally, if (8) holds, then this means exactly that I_{\mathfrak p} is the zero module if and only if \mathfrak p \in V(I), which is clearly saying that (7) holds. Now (1) – (9) are equivalent.

Assume (1) – (9) hold. Then R/I \subset (1 + I)^{-1}R by (9) and the map R/I \to (1 + I)^{-1}R is also surjective by the description of localizations at primes afforded by (7). Hence (11) holds.

The implication (11) \Rightarrow (10) is trivial. And (10) implies that (1) holds because a localization of R is flat over R, see Lemma 10.39.18. \square


Comments (4)

Comment #3573 by shanbei on

In the beginning of the third line, instead of "J \otimes_R R/I=R/JI", it should be "J \otimes_R R/I=J/JI".

Comment #6648 by 七海辣辣米 on

In lemma 04PS, the first paragraph, there is a missed 0 in the second exact sequence.

Comment #6871 by on

OK, no, that is because the second exact sequence isn't a short exact sequence in general. So then we do not write the at the beginning. OK?

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